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Question 1 Diagnostics
A bacterial culture from a canine wound yields moderate growth of Staphylococcus pseudintermedius. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing shows the following: Oxacillin - Resistant; Amoxicillin-clavulanate - Susceptible; Clindamycin - Susceptible; Enrofloxacin - Resistant. Which statement about these results is MOST accurate?
Question 2 Medicine
A 2-year-old male intact dog presents with fever (104.8°F), epistaxis, thrombocytopenia (28,000/µL), lymphadenopathy, and uveitis. The dog lives in North Carolina and has a history of tick exposure. Morulae are NOT seen on blood smear. Which test is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
Question 3 Surgery
A 9-month-old female Boxer presents with acute non-weight-bearing lameness of the right forelimb following a fall. Radiographs reveal a Salter-Harris Type IV fracture of the distal humerus involving the lateral condyle. Why does this fracture type carry a worse prognosis than Type I or Type II physeal fractures?
Question 4 Pharmacology Physiology and Toxicology
A dog receiving phenobarbital for epilepsy at a stable dose of 2.5 mg/kg PO BID is started on chloramphenicol for a resistant infection. Three days later, the owner reports profound sedation and ataxia. Serum phenobarbital concentration is now 48 µg/mL (therapeutic 20–35 µg/mL). What is the mechanism of this drug interaction?
Question 5 Surgery
A 5-year-old male neutered domestic shorthair cat develops pyothorax and fails to respond to bilateral thoracostomy tube placement with pleural lavage and appropriate antimicrobial therapy after 5 days of treatment. CT imaging reveals an area of marked pulmonary consolidation and a thick-walled intrathoracic abscess. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
Question 6 Preventive Medicine
An APHIS veterinarian must evaluate import permit applications for live cattle from a country with modified accredited advanced status for bovine tuberculosis. Which statement BEST describes the testing requirements that must be verified?
Question 7 Pharmacology Physiology and Toxicology
A 30 kg dog presents 1 hour after ingesting ~3 g of xylitol-containing sugar-free gum. On presentation he is alert but mildly ataxic. Blood glucose is 42 mg/dL. Liver enzymes are normal. What is the mechanism by which xylitol causes hypoglycemia in dogs, and at what dose is hepatic necrosis expected?
Question 8 Pathology
A 7-year-old spayed female Doberman Pinscher presents with lethargy and pale mucous membranes. CBC reveals severe anemia (PCV 12%), marked spherocytosis, and persistent autoagglutination that does not disperse with saline dilution. Direct Coombs test is strongly positive. Saline agglutination test result indicates true autoagglutination. The platelet count is 45,000/µL. What is the complete diagnosis for this patient?
Question 9 Surgery
During exploratory laparotomy for GDV in a 7-year-old Great Dane, the surgeon repositions the stomach and, before performing gastropexy, evaluates the gastric wall. The fundus is dark purple-black and does not blanche with warm saline lavage after 10 minutes. Intraoperative Doppler shows no mural blood flow. What is the correct management of this area?
Question 10 Anesthesia
A 40 kg dog under isoflurane anesthesia for exploratory laparotomy shows the following values: SpO2 = 98%, ETCO2 = 58 mmHg, RR = 4 breaths/min, HR = 90 bpm, MAP = 72 mmHg. The vaporizer is set at 1.8%. What is the primary concern and the correct intervention?
Question 11 Pathology
A 4-year-old female Flat-Coated Retriever is diagnosed with oral malignant melanoma. The tumor is 3 cm in diameter and regional lymph node metastasis is confirmed. Which characteristic of melanoma makes it particularly prone to BOTH lymphatic AND hematogenous spread compared to other tumor types?
Question 12 Surgery
A 5-year-old male neutered Bulldog undergoes corrective surgery for brachycephalic obstructive airway syndrome including staphylectomy (soft palate resection). Post-operatively, the dog develops severe respiratory distress and stridor worse than before surgery. Emergency examination reveals significant swelling at the surgical site. What is the most appropriate immediate intervention?
Question 13 Medicine
You perform rectal palpation on a 7-year-old Quarter Horse with acute moderate colic (HR 56 bpm). You feel a gas-distended large colon along the left body wall, and the pelvic flexure cannot be identified in its normal left ventral position. The colon appears to be positioned dorsal to the nephrosplenic ligament. Which diagnosis best fits these findings?
Question 14 Surgery
A horse undergoes large colon resection and anastomosis for strangulating large colon volvulus. Which factor is MOST significantly associated with decreased survival after this surgery?
Question 15 Surgery
A 10-year-old male neutered Shetland Sheepdog is diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder involving the trigone and proximal urethra. The tumor has progressed despite medical management with piroxicam and mitoxantrone. Which of the following statements regarding total cystectomy with urinary diversion in dogs is most accurate?
Question 16 Diagnostics
A 7-year-old Boxer dog is evaluated for exercise intolerance and ventricular arrhythmias. Echocardiography reveals a dilated right ventricle with thinning of the right ventricular free wall. Areas of increased echogenicity are noted within the RV free wall. The left ventricle appears normal. A 24-hour Holter monitor reveals >1000 ventricular premature complexes of right ventricular origin. Which condition is most likely?
Question 17 Pathology
A 10-month-old dairy heifer develops progressive blindness, seizures, and pressing her head against objects two months into a severe drought. The group has been fed dry hay exclusively for the past 4 months. Ophthalmoscopic examination reveals bilateral papilledema. At necropsy, the brain shows cerebellar herniation through the foramen magnum. Which histopathological finding in the optic nerve would be most consistent with the suspected diagnosis?
Question 18 Medicine
A 1-year-old male castrated Maine Coon cat from a multicat household presents with progressive abdominal distension over 2 weeks. The cat has decreased appetite, is less active, and has a fluctuating fever. Physical examination reveals an abdominal fluid wave and muffled heart sounds. Echocardiography reveals pericardial effusion with diastolic collapse of the right atrium and right ventricle; left ventricular wall thickness and left atrial size are normal. Pericardiocentesis and abdominocentesis yield straw-colored, viscous fluid with total protein of 5.8 g/dL, an albumin:globulin ratio of 0.3, and low cellularity (nondegenerate neutrophils and macrophages). What is the MOST likely underlying diagnosis in this cat?
Question 19 Pharmacology Physiology and Toxicology
A 5-year-old male cat presents with vomiting, hypersalivation, respiratory distress, miosis, bradycardia, and muscle fasciculations after being in a garage. The owner uses an organophosphate insecticide. What is the appropriate antidote?
Question 20 Medicine
A 9-year-old spayed female Cocker Spaniel presents for evaluation of chronic keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS) that has been managed with topical cyclosporine 0.2% for 3 years. Recent Schirmer tear test results are 2 mm/min OD and 4 mm/min OS (previously stable at 8-10 mm/min). The corneas show progressive vascularization and pigmentation despite compliance. Which alternative immunomodulatory drug may be effective for cyclosporine-refractory KCS?
Question 21 Pharmacology Physiology and Toxicology
Which mechanism best explains why fluoroquinolones are bactericidal rather than bacteriostatic?
Question 22 Pharmacology Physiology and Toxicology
A 40 kg dog is receiving cisplatin chemotherapy for osteosarcoma. Which species-specific contraindication limits cisplatin use, and what is the mechanism of the fatal adverse effect in that species?
Question 23 Diagnostics
A 9-year-old male neutered Bichon Frise presents with PU/PD and a serum calcium of 14.8 mg/dL (reference 9.0–11.5 mg/dL). Phosphorus is 2.1 mg/dL. PTH is suppressed. PTH-rP is markedly elevated. What is the most likely etiology of this dog's hypercalcemia?
Question 24 Animal Welfare
A 6-year-old spayed female Beagle has been on fluoxetine (1 mg/kg PO q24h) for 8 weeks for generalized anxiety disorder. The owner reports significant improvement in anxiety-related behaviors. They ask about discontinuing the medication. Which recommendation regarding discontinuation is most appropriate?
Question 25 Pharmacology Physiology and Toxicology
A 10-year-old cat with hyperthyroidism is started on methimazole. Two weeks later it develops facial pruritus and excoriations. What is the most likely mechanism of this adverse effect?
Question 26 Pharmacology Physiology and Toxicology
A 5-year-old cat presents with anuric renal failure 72 hours after exposure to Easter lily plants (Lilium longiflorum). Serum creatinine is 14.6 mg/dL, BUN is 188 mg/dL, phosphorus is 12.1 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows granular casts and glucosuria with normoglycemia. Renal biopsy would most likely show:
Question 27 Anatomy
A 4-year-old Thoroughbred gelding is being examined for anhidrosis (inability to sweat) after relocating to a hot and humid climate. Which type of sweat gland is primarily affected in equine anhidrosis?
Question 28 Medicine
A 6-year-old intact male Boxer dog presents with exercise intolerance and three episodes of syncope over the past month. Physical examination reveals occasional premature beats on auscultation. An ECG performed during a syncopal episode shows runs of wide QRS complex tachycardia at a rate of 260 bpm with uniform morphology and a left bundle branch block pattern (upright QRS complexes in lead II). Between episodes, the ECG shows isolated ventricular premature complexes. Which underlying cardiac condition is most commonly associated with this presentation in this breed?
Question 29 Preventive Medicine
A 10-week-old Great Dane puppy is presented for evaluation of bilateral forelimb deformities. The owners report feeding a homemade diet consisting primarily of raw beef with calcium carbonate supplementation at twice the recommended dose. Radiographs reveal widened physes and irregular metaphyseal borders. Which pathophysiologic mechanism best explains these findings?
Question 30 Pathology
A 2-year-old spayed female mixed breed dog presents with a 3-day history of melena following accidental ingestion of a large quantity of ibuprofen one week ago. CBC reveals PCV 28% (reference 37-55%), MCV 68 fL (reference 60-74), MCHC 34 g/dL (reference 32-36), reticulocyte count 95,000/µL, and platelet count 620,000/µL (reference 175-500). What combination of findings would you expect if this dog's gastrointestinal blood loss continues for several more weeks?
Question 31 Pharmacology Physiology and Toxicology
A dog is anesthetized with isoflurane at 1.5 MAC for an orthopedic procedure. Arterial blood gas shows: pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 58 mmHg, PaO₂ 310 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 26 mEq/L. The dog is breathing spontaneously. Which best explains the acid-base status?
Question 32 Animal Welfare
An 8-year-old Thoroughbred gelding that has been cribbing for 5 years continues to perform the behavior despite management changes including increased turnout, social contact, and feeding modifications. The owner asks if the behavior should still be considered a welfare concern given the improved conditions. Which response is most accurate based on current understanding?
Question 33 Diagnostics
A ferret with chronic weight loss and hypergammaglobulinemia has Aleutian disease parvovirus suspected. Which diagnostic test is considered the most sensitive for confirming active infection?
Question 34 Medicine
A 7-year-old female spayed Bichon Frise is diagnosed with immune-mediated hemolytic anemia based on severe anemia (PCV 14%), spherocytosis, positive saline agglutination test, and hyperbilirubinemia. The dog has been started on immunosuppressive prednisone therapy. Three days later, despite improvement in attitude and appetite, the dog develops acute respiratory distress with a respiratory rate of 68 breaths per minute. Arterial blood gas reveals PaO2 55 mmHg on room air. Thoracic radiographs show diffuse interstitial-to-alveolar infiltrates with enlarged pulmonary arteries. What is the most likely complication?
Question 35 Anatomy
A 3-year-old intact male Thoroughbred stallion develops acute colic signs after breeding. Rectal examination reveals distended small intestine. The attending veterinarian suspects inguinal herniation. Which anatomical structure forms the INTERNAL boundary of the deep inguinal ring?
Question 36 Pathology
A 5-year-old dog with immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA) has thrombosis of the portal vein identified on ultrasound. Coagulation testing shows PT 7 seconds (reference: 6-9 seconds), aPTT 14 seconds (reference: 12-18 seconds), and platelet count 380,000/μL. D-dimer is elevated at 1,200 ng/mL. What pathophysiologic mechanism best explains the hypercoagulable state in IMHA?
Question 37 Preventive Medicine
An associate veterinarian without her own DEA registration is working at a veterinary hospital. Under DEA regulations, which activities can she LEGALLY perform using the practice owner's DEA registration?
Question 38 Medicine
A 5-year-old female spayed Cocker Spaniel presents with acute vomiting, abdominal pain, and fever (40.1 C) of 24 hours duration. Abdominal ultrasound reveals a turgid, immobile gallbladder with striated material creating a kiwi-fruit pattern. The gallbladder wall measures 4 mm thick. A small amount of peritoneal effusion is noted around the gallbladder. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Question 38 image
Question 39 Anesthesia
A ferret requires abdominal exploratory surgery. Which opioid analgesic is generally preferred over morphine in ferrets due to reduced histamine release and better cardiovascular stability?
Question 40 Anesthesia
A 12-year-old female spayed mixed breed dog is scheduled for mass removal. Preanesthetic bloodwork reveals BUN 45 mg/dL (reference 7-27) and creatinine 2.8 mg/dL (reference 0.5-1.8) with urine specific gravity of 1.018. How should these findings influence anesthetic planning?
Question 41 Medicine
A 6-year-old intact female Golden Retriever presents with a mammary mass. Histopathology confirms mammary carcinoma, and staging reveals pulmonary metastases. Which chemotherapy agent has the most evidence supporting activity against canine mammary carcinoma?
Question 42 Medicine
An 8-year-old male castrated Golden Retriever presents with progressive exercise intolerance and a dry, nonproductive cough over 3 months. Physical examination reveals tachypnea at rest and end-inspiratory crackles on thoracic auscultation bilaterally. Arterial blood gas reveals PaO2 68 mmHg on room air. High-resolution computed tomography of the thorax shows patchy ground-glass opacities, traction bronchiectasis, and honeycombing primarily affecting the caudal lung lobes. Bronchoalveolar lavage cytology reveals increased neutrophils (45%) without infectious organisms. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Question 43 Anatomy
A dog is presented with regurgitation, megaesophagus, and laryngeal paralysis. Electrodiagnostic testing shows denervation of the cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle. Which nerve nucleus in the brainstem is most likely affected?
Question 44 Medicine
A 6-year-old Quarter Horse stallion presents with poor libido and declining fertility over the past breeding season. Physical examination reveals bilateral testicular atrophy with soft consistency. Serum testosterone is low and FSH is markedly elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Question 45 Anatomy
A mare is presented for evaluation of chronic weight loss. Rectal palpation reveals an enlarged structure in the left dorsal abdomen. The veterinarian suspects a left kidney mass. Which vessel provides the primary arterial blood supply to the left kidney in the horse?
Question 46 Medicine
A 9-year-old Dachshund with a previously diagnosed portosystemic shunt presents with severe hepatic encephalopathy (obtunded, head pressing) that has not responded to 48 hours of medical management including oral lactulose, oral metronidazole, and IV fluids. Blood ammonia remains markedly elevated at 235 micromol/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Question 47 Anatomy
A mare delivers a foal with contracted tendons and multiple congenital abnormalities. The owner reports the pregnancy was uneventful. Examination of the expelled placenta reveals it weighs significantly less than expected and shows areas of avillous chorion. What is the most likely placental cause of these abnormalities?
Question 48 Anesthesia
A 550 kg adult horse undergoes general anesthesia in dorsal recumbency for colic surgery. The procedure lasts 3.5 hours. During recovery, the horse is unable to rise after 45 minutes and shows signs of muscle firmness and pain in the hindquarters. CK is markedly elevated. Which complication has occurred?
Question 49 Medicine
A 3-year-old racing Greyhound presents with sudden onset of severe right hindlimb lameness during a race. The dog is non-weight-bearing on the affected limb. Physical examination reveals marked pain and crepitus on manipulation of the right tarsus. Radiographs demonstrate a comminuted fracture of the central tarsal bone. What anatomical and biomechanical factor predisposes racing Greyhounds to this injury?
Question 50 Medicine
A 10-year-old neutered male Domestic Shorthair cat was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus 3 months ago and has been well-controlled on glargine insulin 1.5 U SC q12h with a carbohydrate-restricted diet. Recent blood glucose curves consistently show nadir values of 55-70 mg/dL with the cat showing no clinical signs of hypoglycemia. Fructosamine has decreased from initial 495 μmol/L to 285 μmol/L (reference: 190-365 μmol/L). The owner asks about the possibility of stopping insulin. What is the appropriate next step and the pathophysiologic basis for potential diabetic remission in cats?

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BCSE Free Practice Exam — Frequently Asked Questions

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Yes. All 50 questions are free to take, your score is shown as soon as you finish, and a link to the full answer key with explanations is emailed to you at no cost.

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The BCSE has roughly 225 multiple-choice questions delivered over about four hours at a Prometric testing center. This free practice exam gives you a 50-question sample to gauge where you stand.

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Questions are spread across the nine BCSE domains: Anatomy, Anesthesia, Animal Welfare, Diagnostics, Medicine, Pathology, Pharmacology Physiology and Toxicology, Preventive Medicine, Surgery. Medicine and Pharmacology, Physiology and Toxicology carry the most questions, as they do in our BCSE mocks.

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