Is this NAVLE practice exam really free?

Yes. All 50 questions are completely free to take. You get your score instantly and a full answer key with explanations is emailed to you at no cost.

How many questions are on the free NAVLE practice exam?

This free practice exam has 50 NAVLE-style multiple choice questions across the official species and topics.

Do I get explanations for the answers?

Yes. After you complete the exam and enter your email, we send a detailed answer key with the correct answer and an explanation for every question.

How is the real NAVLE structured?

The NAVLE contains 360 multiple-choice questions delivered in six blocks of 60. This free exam gives you a representative sample to gauge your readiness.

NAVLE Free Practice Exam — 50 Questions with Answers & Explanations

Question 1 Canine

A 6-year-old male English Bulldog presents on a hot summer day with severe panting, drooling, weakness, and vomiting. Rectal temperature is 108°F (42.2°C). The dog collapses during examination. Blood work reveals: glucose 45 mg/dL (reference: 74-143 mg/dL), BUN 58 mg/dL (reference: 7-27 mg/dL), creatinine 3.2 mg/dL (reference: 0.5-1.8 mg/dL), PT 22 seconds (reference: 11-17 seconds), and aPTT 32 seconds (reference: 14-23 seconds). Which combination of findings indicates the POOREST prognosis in this heat stroke patient?

A Elevated BUN and creatinine alone B Hypoglycemia and prolonged clotting times C Normal liver enzymes with mild dehydration D Tachycardia with normal blood pressure E Hyperthermia resolving within 30 minutes of cooling

Question 2 Canine

A 7-year-old female spayed English Cocker Spaniel is presented for evaluation of chronic cough and exercise intolerance. Echocardiography reveals dilated cardiomyopathy with severe left ventricular and left atrial dilation. Whole blood taurine and plasma carnitine concentrations are submitted and both return below the reference range. The dog has been eating a commercially available grain-inclusive diet that meets AAFCO standards. In addition to standard heart failure therapy, which of the following supplementation protocols is most likely to result in improvement of myocardial function?

A Taurine 500 mg PO q8h alone B L-carnitine 50 mg/kg PO q8h alone C Taurine 500 mg and L-carnitine 50 mg/kg PO q8h D Omega-3 fatty acids 40 mg/kg EPA+DHA daily alone E Coenzyme Q10 2 mg/kg PO q12h alone

Question 3 Canine

A 6-year-old spayed female mixed breed dog is presented 10 weeks after surgical repair of a mid-shaft tibial fracture using a bone plate and screws. The owner reports persistent lameness despite initial improvement. Radiographs show a persistent radiolucent fracture line with smooth sclerotic fracture margins, absence of callus formation, and widening of the medullary cavity at the fracture site. The plate appears intact with no signs of implant loosening. Which of the following BEST describes this complication and its most likely etiology?

A Delayed union due to inadequate blood supply from the original trauma B Hypertrophic nonunion due to excessive motion at the fracture site C Atrophic nonunion due to inadequate vascularity and biological environment D Malunion with secondary osteoarthritis E Septic nonunion with osteomyelitis

Question 4 Feline

A 9-year-old neutered male domestic shorthair cat is being evaluated for suspected osteoarthritis. The veterinarian obtains orthogonal radiographs of the elbow joints. Which radiographic finding is MOST commonly associated with feline elbow osteoarthritis?

A Osteophytes on the anconeal process B Fragmentation of the medial coronoid process C Joint-associated mineralizations D Subchondral bone cyst formation E Complete loss of joint space with bony ankylosis

Question 5 Feline

A 12-year-old domestic shorthair cat with a 6-month history of anterior uveitis secondary to presumed FIV infection presents for recheck. Despite treatment with topical prednisolone acetate and atropine, you notice new findings including iris bombé and elevated IOP of 32 mmHg. What is the pathophysiologic mechanism most likely responsible for the elevated intraocular pressure?

A Open-angle obstruction by inflammatory cells B Neovascular membrane over the drainage angle C Pupillary block from 360-degree posterior synechia D Ciliary body swelling obstructing aqueous production E Lens luxation blocking the drainage angle

Question 6 Feline

A 6-year-old male neutered domestic shorthair cat presents 3 days after sustaining a laceration to the caudal aspect of the left hock. The cat now has a plantigrade stance with tarsal hyperflexion. Classification according to the Meutstege system reveals a type IIc lesion. What does this classification indicate?

A Complete rupture of all components of the common calcaneal tendon B Musculotendinous rupture of the gastrocnemius C Rupture of the Achilles tendon with intact paratenon D Gastrocnemius tendon avulsion with intact superficial digital flexor tendon E Tendinosis or peritendinitis without rupture

Question 7 Feline

A cat with a chronic diaphragmatic hernia diagnosed 3 weeks post-trauma is scheduled for surgical repair. Which postoperative complication is of PARTICULAR concern in this patient compared to acute cases?

A Wound dehiscence B Anesthetic recovery prolongation C Recurrence of the hernia D Re-expansion pulmonary edema E Aspiration pneumonia

Question 8 Feline

A 7-year-old domestic shorthair cat with diagnosed IBD on prednisolone therapy continues to have intermittent vomiting and weight loss despite dose adjustments over 3 months. Repeat intestinal biopsies show persistent moderate inflammation. Which next therapeutic step would be most appropriate?

A Increase prednisolone to maximum tolerable dose B Add chlorambucil as immunosuppressive combination therapy C Switch to cyclosporine monotherapy D Discontinue all medication and pursue surgery E Add sulfasalazine to the treatment protocol

Question 9 Feline

A 6-year-old neutered female DSH has a firm, raised mass involving the right upper eyelid. Histopathology reveals sheets of large neoplastic lymphocytes with high mitotic index. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

A Meibomian adenoma B Squamous cell carcinoma C Lymphoma D Mast cell tumor E Hemangiosarcoma

Question 10 Feline

A colleague asks your opinion about a 2-year-old cat scheduled for onychectomy at her clinic. She notes the clinic's standard protocol includes premedication with acepromazine and butorphanol, induction with propofol, maintenance with isoflurane, and a single dose of meloxicam post-operatively. She wants to know if this analgesic protocol is adequate. Based on current evidence and guidelines, what is the MOST appropriate response?

A This protocol is adequate as onychectomy causes only mild to moderate pain B Current guidelines recommend multimodal analgesia extending beyond the immediate post-operative period C Post-operative NSAIDs alone provide sufficient analgesia for onychectomy D Pain from onychectomy resolves within 24 hours and extended analgesia is unnecessary E Opioid use should be avoided in cats undergoing onychectomy due to dysphoria

Question 11 Feline

A 10-year-old hyperthyroid cat has been receiving methimazole treatment for 3 months. The owner reports recent development of generalized weakness and occasional regurgitation. Serum T4 is now within normal limits. Which condition should be suspected, and what is the appropriate initial action?

A Hypokalemia secondary to chronic kidney disease; supplement potassium B Methimazole-induced myasthenia gravis; discontinue methimazole C Diabetic neuropathy; check blood glucose D Hypothyroidism from methimazole overdose; reduce methimazole dose E Inflammatory bowel disease; dietary modification

Question 12 Equine

A 13-year-old Quarter Horse gelding with chronic laminitis undergoes venography to assess vascular perfusion of the foot. The venogram shows absence of contrast filling in the circumflex vessels and reduced filling of the terminal arch. What is the significance of these findings?

A Excellent prognosis with conservative management B Normal vascular pattern indicating adequate perfusion C Digital perfusion compromise with poor prognosis D Artifact from improper injection technique E Indication for immediate surgical neurectomy

Question 13 Equine

A veterinarian is comparing diagnostic tests for equine piroplasmosis. For a horse with suspected acute infection showing fever, anemia, and icterus, which combination of diagnostic tests would provide the most comprehensive acute-phase diagnostic workup?

A CBC and serum chemistry only B Giemsa smear, PCR, acute/convalescent serology C cELISA screening alone D Western blot analysis only E Complement fixation test repeated weekly for 4 weeks

Question 14 Equine

During a February outbreak at a boarding facility, 12 of 35 horses develop fever, lethargy, and anorexia over a 10-day period. Only 2 affected horses develop soft feces, and none develop profuse diarrhea. CBC on several affected horses shows lymphopenia with or without neutropenia. Fecal qPCR testing on 6 affected horses is positive for equine coronavirus. One 15-year-old mare with diabetes mellitus also develops signs of severe depression, head pressing against the wall, and circling. Her blood ammonia level is 485 µmol/L (normal ≤60 µmol/L). What is the pathophysiological basis for her neurological signs?

A Direct viral infection of the central nervous system B Hepatic encephalopathy secondary to viral hepatitis C Hyperammonemic encephalopathy from damaged GI mucosa D Hypoglycemic encephalopathy from anorexia E Bacterial meningitis secondary to sepsis

Question 15 Equine

A 17-year-old Arabian gelding is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease based on azotemia, isosthenuria, and weight loss. The owner wishes to know the best prognostic indicator for this horse's survival. Based on current evidence, which of the following parameters best predicts prognosis in equine CKD?

A Absolute peak serum creatinine value at diagnosis B Response to intravenous fluid therapy in the first 72 hours C Degree of proteinuria on initial presentation D Presence or absence of nephroliths on ultrasound E Age of the horse at the time of diagnosis

Question 16 Equine

A veterinarian is examining lateral skull radiographs of a 10-year-old Warmblood gelding with chronic unilateral epistaxis. On the radiograph, there is loss of the normal laminated appearance of the ethmoturbinates, replaced by a homogeneous mass effect in the ethmoid region. Soft tissue opacity is also noted in the frontal sinus. What is the most likely radiographic interpretation?

A Primary sinusitis with secondary ethmoid involvement B Progressive ethmoid hematoma with sinus extension C Sinonasal squamous cell carcinoma D Dental-associated sinusitis with abscess formation E Paranasal sinus cyst

Question 17 Equine

A 12-year-old pregnant mare at 330 days gestation presents with severe colic, tachycardia (68 bpm), and sweating. Rectal palpation reveals a 270° uterine torsion. The cervix is partially dilated. Transabdominal ultrasonography shows fetal bradycardia (50 bpm) and placental edema with thickened CTUP complex. What is the most appropriate treatment approach?

A Standing flank laparotomy B Manual transcervical correction C Rolling under general anesthesia D Ventral celiotomy for cesarean delivery E Conservative management with analgesics and monitoring

Question 18 Equine

During extraction of a maxillary wolf tooth in a 2-year-old gelding, you encounter unexpected significant hemorrhage that continues despite digital pressure. The blood appears to be pulsatile and bright red. What is the most likely source of bleeding and the most appropriate immediate management?

A Gingival vessels; apply continued pressure for 5 minutes B Greater palatine artery; apply direct pressure or suture pack C Infraorbital artery; immediate referral for surgical ligation D Palatine venous plexus; pack with hemostatic gauze E Tooth socket granulation tissue; cauterization with silver nitrate

Question 19 Bovine

A beef producer is experiencing poor pregnancy rates in a natural-service herd. Several cows have returned to estrus at irregular long intervals. Testing confirms the presence of both Tritrichomonas foetus and Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis in the herd. Which statement regarding these two diseases is CORRECT?

A T. foetus causes abortion in mid-to-late gestation while C. fetus causes early embryonic death B Both organisms cause similar clinical syndromes of early embryonic loss and infertility C T. foetus is transmitted by fomites while C. fetus requires direct venereal contact D C. fetus infection results in permanent infertility while T. foetus allows eventual conception E Both organisms can be effectively treated with systemic antibiotics

Question 20 Bovine

A dairy nutritionist is formulating a close-up dry cow ration to prevent milk fever. The current ration has a dietary cation-anion difference (DCAD) of +180 mEq/kg DM. What is the target DCAD range and expected urine pH for effective milk fever prevention in Holstein cows?

A DCAD of +50 to +100 mEq/kg; urine pH 7.5-8.0 B DCAD of -100 to -200 mEq/kg; urine pH 6.2-6.8 C DCAD of 0 mEq/kg; urine pH 7.0 D DCAD of -300 to -400 mEq/kg; urine pH 5.0-5.5 E DCAD of +200 to +300 mEq/kg; urine pH 8.0-8.5

Question 21 Bovine

A feedlot veterinarian is investigating increased morbidity and mortality from bovine respiratory disease (BRD) despite appropriate vaccination and treatment protocols. Trace mineral analysis of liver samples from necropsied calves reveals copper at 18 ppm and selenium at 0.12 ppm wet weight. How might these mineral deficiencies contribute to the BRD problem?

A Impaired immune function reducing vaccine response and increasing susceptibility to respiratory pathogens B Decreased surfactant production leading to alveolar collapse and secondary bacterial infection C Impaired mucociliary clearance from ciliated epithelial dysfunction D Direct toxic effect on pulmonary macrophages reducing bacterial killing E Increased pulmonary vascular permeability causing predisposition to pneumonia

Question 22 Bovine

During surgical repair of a full-thickness teat laceration in a lactating Holstein cow, you are preparing to close the wound in layers. Which of the following statements regarding suture selection and technique is CORRECT?

A Use 2-0 chromic gut for all three layers due to excellent knot security B Close mucosa with absorbable 4-0 or 5-0 suture in simple continuous pattern for milk-tight seal C Use non-absorbable suture for the mucosal layer to prevent fistula formation D Monocryl is the ideal choice for mucosal closure due to its monofilament properties E Close in two layers only since the mucosa heals rapidly without suturing

Question 23 Bovine

A 2-year-old Holstein heifer accidentally fed sheep mineral for several weeks suddenly develops depression, weakness, port-wine urine, icterus, and pale mucous membranes; she dies within 48 hours. Necropsy shows a gunmetal-blue kidney and friable orange liver. Which statement about this toxicosis is most accurate?

A Sheep more susceptible than cattle B Sheep are more resistant than cattle C Self-limiting; no treatment D Treat with methylene blue E Caused by molybdenum excess

Question 24 Bovine

A veterinarian accidentally receives a needlestick injury while vaccinating cattle with Brucella abortus RB51 vaccine. What is the most appropriate recommendation?

A No action needed since RB51 is an attenuated vaccine that cannot infect humans B Immediate referral for medical evaluation and prophylactic antibiotic treatment with doxycycline and rifampin C Standard wound care only with monitoring for symptoms over the next few months D Administration of post-exposure human brucellosis vaccine E Immediate surgical debridement of the injection site

Question 25 Bovine

A 6-year-old beef cow has been in labor for 10 hours with a calf in transverse presentation. The spine of the calf is palpable running perpendicular to the cows spine and neither the head nor limbs can be reached. What is the most appropriate management for this presentation?

A Continue attempts at vaginal delivery with repositioning B Perform cesarean section C Administer oxytocin to increase contractions D Attempt fetotomy in situ E Wait for spontaneous repositioning

Question 26 Porcine

A veterinarian submits CNS tissue samples from pigs with suspected teschovirus encephalomyelitis to the diagnostic laboratory. The laboratory reports positive RT-PCR results for porcine teschovirus but also detects porcine sapelovirus and enterovirus G in the same samples. Given that multiple porcine picornaviruses are detected, how should these results be interpreted in the context of the neurological disease?

A All three viruses are equally likely causative agents and should be reported B PTV in CNS tissue with compatible histopathology supports PTV as etiologic agent C Co-detection indicates a polymicrobial etiology requiring antimicrobial therapy D The laboratory should repeat testing due to likely cross-contamination E Enterovirus G is the most likely cause as it was most recently discovered

Question 27 Porcine

A 500-head nursery operation reports that approximately 29% of pigs have died following introduction of a new feed delivery 5 days ago. The surviving pigs show anorexia, respiratory distress, ataxia, and hindlimb weakness. The producer mentions that pigs had been receiving Denagard (tiamulin) in water at 10.5 mg/lb to combat secondary respiratory pathogens. Feed analysis reveals narasin at 107 ppm in the ration. Which of the following statements regarding diagnostic confirmation is CORRECT?

A Blood ionophore levels confirm the diagnosis definitively B Liver biopsy with ionophore quantification is the gold standard C Cardiac muscle histopathology is more diagnostic than skeletal muscle in swine D Elevated serum selenium rules out ionophore toxicosis E Feed or stomach contents must be analyzed; tissues cannot be tested for ionophores

Question 28 Porcine

A swine breeding operation reports that 18% of their gilt litters experience some degree of savaging, compared to only 3% of multiparous sow litters. The genetic consultant notes that the replacement gilt line was selected for high lean growth and low backfat. Farrowing supervision shows that gilts experiencing savaging display more frequent posture changes, rearing behavior, and an inability to lie down carefully compared to non-savaging gilts. Which pathophysiological mechanism BEST explains the higher savaging incidence in these gilts?

A Lower oxytocin receptor expression in selected lean genetics reduces maternal bonding B Excessive body condition and pelvic lean tissue restrict the birth canal, causing painful farrowing and defensive aggression. C Higher cortisol levels in lean genotypes suppress prolactin and disrupt nest-building behavior D Reduced fat reserves lead to metabolic stress during farrowing that manifests as aggression E First-parity gilts lack exposure to piglets during development preventing appropriate maternal response recognition

Question 29 Ovine and Caprine

A veterinarian is conducting postmortem examinations on sheep from a flock experiencing chronic respiratory disease. One 4-year-old ewe has enlarged, firm lungs with gray mottling consistent with maedi. Another ewe of similar age has firm gray lung tissue but also distinct nodular lesions in the cranioventral lung lobes that produce frothy fluid on cut surface. Histopathology of the second ewe reveals both lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia AND bronchioloalveolar carcinoma. What does this finding indicate about the relationship between these two conditions?

A Maedi-visna virus has transformed into Jaagsiekte sheep retrovirus through mutation B The findings are coincidental and unrelated as the two viruses cannot co-infect the same animal C Co-infection with both viruses is common, and MVV infection may enhance transmission and progression of JSRV D The bronchioloalveolar carcinoma represents a late-stage complication of pure maedi-visna infection E JSRV infection always precedes and predisposes to maedi-visna infection

Question 30 Ovine and Caprine

A flock of 200 lambs in a feedlot environment presents with an outbreak of polyarthritis affecting approximately 15% of the animals. Affected lambs are 4-5 months old and developed fever and reluctance to move within 3 weeks of arriving at the feedlot. Several lambs also have concurrent conjunctivitis. Joint swelling is present but relatively mild compared to the degree of lameness. Most cases appear to be self-limiting over 10-14 days. Which pathogen is most likely responsible for this outbreak?

A Streptococcus dysgalactiae B Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae C Chlamydophila pecorum D Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae E Histophilus somni

Question 31 Ovine and Caprine

A 12-day-old Boer goat kid develops severe watery diarrhea and marked dehydration (estimated 10% dehydration). The kid is depressed and unable to stand. Physical examination reveals sunken eyes, prolonged skin tent (>5 seconds), cold extremities, and weak pulse. Which fluid therapy approach is most appropriate for initial stabilization?

A Oral electrolyte solution 50 mL/kg over 4-6 hours B Intravenous isotonic crystalloid 50-100 mL/kg over 1-2 hours C Subcutaneous lactated Ringer solution 20 mL/kg D Intravenous hypertonic saline 7.5% at 4 mL/kg E Oral milk replacer with added electrolytes

Question 32 Poultry

Regarding the zoonotic potential of avian tuberculosis, which statement is most accurate?

A M. avium serovars from birds commonly cause disease in healthy humans B M. avium serovars affecting birds differ from those affecting humans C Avian tuberculosis has no zoonotic potential D Direct bird-to-human transmission is the most common route of human infection E Human infection from avian sources causes classic pulmonary tuberculosis

Question 33 Poultry

A breeder flock has decreased hatchability with white diarrhea and high mortality in newly hatched chicks. Necropsy of dead chicks reveals miliary white nodules in the heart, lungs, and yolk sac. Culture isolates a non-motile lactose-negative Gram-negative rod. Which disease is suspected, and what is the regulatory significance?

A Pullorum disease; REPORTABLE B Fowl cholera; not reportable C Mycoplasmosis; not reportable D Colibacillosis; not reportable E Omphalitis; not reportable

Question 34 Pet Bird

A recently hatched 1-week-old Moluccan cockatoo chick from a known PBFD-positive breeding hen dies acutely. At necropsy, the following findings are noted: pale musculature, hepatomegaly with multifocal white foci, diffuse subcutaneous ecchymoses, splenomegaly, and no feather abnormalities. Histopathology of the liver reveals intranuclear and intracytoplasmic basophilic inclusion bodies in hepatocytes. PCR of liver tissue is positive for BFDV. Which form of PBFD does this represent, and why are no feather abnormalities present?

A Chronic PBFD — feather dystrophy resolves spontaneously in neonates B Acute PBFD in a juvenile bird — feather abnormalities are only seen after the first post-infection molt in older birds C Peracute PBFD — neonates die from septicemia and systemic infection before feather development allows for visible dystrophy to manifest D French moult (avian polyomavirus) — feather abnormalities are absent because polyomavirus does not affect feathers in cockatoos E Subacute PBFD — the bird died due to secondary Gram-negative septicemia, not primary PBFD

Question 35 Pet Bird

A 3-year-old cockatiel (Nymphicus hollandicus) is presented with a 3-week history of progressive lethargy weight loss bilateral nasal discharge lime-green droppings and mild dyspnea. The owner reports acquiring two new cockatiels from a pet store 6 weeks ago. Physical exam reveals a fluffed depressed bird with conjunctival hyperemia watery droppings with lime-green coloration and mild hepatomegaly on palpation. CBC shows leukocytosis with monocytosis. Chemistry panel shows elevated AST and bile acids. Which diagnostic test combination would MOST definitively confirm the suspected diagnosis?

A Fecal floatation and direct smear for parasites paired with aerobic bacterial culture B Serial complete blood counts every 3 days C Acid-fast staining of feces for Mycobacterium avium D Radiographs and ultrasound of the abdomen to characterize liver size E PCR for Chlamydia psittaci on cloacal and choanal swabs with plasma protein electrophoresis showing elevated beta-globulins

Question 36 Aquatics

A diagnostic laboratory isolates a virus from diseased carp using EPC cells. Cytopathic effect appears at day 5 at 20°C. The virus has a bullet-shaped morphology. Which additional characteristic would distinguish SVCV from IHNV?

A Presence of matrix protein B Absence of non-virion gene C Single-stranded RNA genome D Presence of glycoprotein E Negative-sense genome polarity

Question 37 Aquatics

A veterinarian is investigating chronic anemia in a population of farmed Atlantic salmon. The fish display reduced growth, lethargy, and pale gills. Histopathological examination of the head kidney reveals increased erythroid precursors with megaloblastic changes. Which nutritional deficiency is MOST likely responsible?

A Iron deficiency B Vitamin B12 deficiency C Copper deficiency D Zinc deficiency E Vitamin A deficiency

Question 38 Reptile

A sea turtle rehabilitation center receives a loggerhead turtle (Caretta caretta) with propeller strike injuries to the carapace. Three large fracture fragments are displaced and contaminated with marine debris. The coelomic cavity is not exposed. After initial stabilization, what is the most appropriate method for fracture stabilization in this case?

A Immediate application of fiberglass resin to seal all fracture lines B Orthopedic plate and screw fixation with stainless steel hardware C External fixation using cable ties or orthodontic brackets with open wound management D Complete surgical removal of displaced fragments followed by wet-to-dry bandaging E Vacuum-assisted closure device placement over the entire defect

Question 39 Other Small Mammal

A guinea pig diagnosed with streptococcal pneumonia also has limb swelling and reluctance to move. Radiographs reveal periarticular soft tissue swelling and joint effusion in multiple joints. What concurrent deficiency should be suspected as contributing to this presentation?

A Hypovitaminosis A B Hypovitaminosis C causing scurvy C Hypovitaminosis D D Hypocalcemia E Iron deficiency

Question 40 Camelidae and Cervidae

Following surgical repair of a comminuted metatarsal fracture in an adult llama using bone plates and lag screws, the animal develops progressive swelling, heat, and drainage at the surgical site 3 weeks postoperatively. Radiographs show bone lysis around the screws and periosteal reaction. Culture of the drainage yields Staphylococcus aureus. What is the most appropriate management strategy?

A Remove all implants immediately and apply a cast B Continue systemic antibiotics alone while maintaining the implants until fracture healing C Staged treatment: retain implant for infection control, then remove after healing D Apply topical antibiotics to the wound while maintaining implants E Immediate euthanasia as post-surgical osteomyelitis is untreatable

Question 41 Canine

A 2-year-old intact male Labrador Retriever is presented after being hit by a car. On examination, the dog is non-weight bearing on the left pelvic limb with crepitus and swelling in the mid-femoral region. Thoracic radiographs reveal no abnormalities. Orthogonal radiographs of the left femur show a comminuted mid-diaphyseal fracture with significant displacement and overriding of fragments. Which of the following fixation methods would provide the MOST appropriate stabilization for this fracture?

A External skeletal fixation with type I configuration B Intramedullary pin with cerclage wires C Locking plate and screw bone fixation D Cast immobilization with well-padded fiberglass E Conservative management with strict cage rest

Question 42 Canine

A 9-year-old male castrated Golden Retriever with a 6-month history of chronic vomiting, diarrhea, and weight loss undergoes endoscopy. The duodenal mucosa appears thickened and irregular. Histopathology shows a monomorphic population of lymphocytes infiltrating the lamina propria with extension into the submucosa. Which concern does this finding raise regarding the diagnosis?

A This confirms food-responsive enteropathy B This pattern is pathognomonic for IBD C Further testing needed to differentiate IBD from lymphoma D This indicates eosinophilic infiltration requiring dietary management E The diagnosis is clearly antibiotic-responsive enteropathy

Question 43 Canine

A 9-year-old intact female Rottweiler presents in shock with pale mucous membranes, weak pulses, and a distended abdomen. The dog has had progressive lethargy for 5 days with no vaginal discharge observed. Emergency abdominal ultrasound reveals a markedly enlarged, fluid-filled uterus. Blood work shows severe neutropenia with a degenerative left shift, azotemia, and elevated liver enzymes. Which type of pyometra does this presentation represent, and why does it carry a worse prognosis?

A Open-cervix pyometra; worse due to bacterial contamination of vagina B Closed-cervix pyometra; worse due to inability to drain purulent material C Stump pyometra; worse due to previous surgical manipulation D Secondary pyometra; worse due to underlying uterine neoplasia E Emphysematous pyometra; worse due to gas-forming bacteria

Question 44 Canine

A 7-year-old male neutered Irish Wolfhound presents with a 2-week history of exercise intolerance and occasional coughing. On auscultation, the heart rhythm sounds like 'tennis shoes in a dryer.' Heart rate is 220 bpm and irregularly irregular. Thoracic radiographs show severe cardiomegaly with pulmonary venous congestion. Echocardiography reveals dilated cardiomyopathy with a fractional shortening of 12% (reference: 25-45%). What combination of medications would be most appropriate for rate control of this arrhythmia?

A Lidocaine and mexiletine B Atenolol and procainamide C Digoxin and diltiazem D Sotalol and amiodarone E Atropine and theophylline

Question 45 Canine

A 10-year-old spayed female German Shepherd Dog presents with lethargy, ascites, and exercise intolerance. Echocardiography reveals a large anechoic space surrounding the heart with diastolic collapse of the right atrium. A 4 cm irregular mass is visible on the right atrial appendage. What is the most likely diagnosis and prognosis?

A Chemodectoma; median survival 1-2 years with pericardiectomy B Right atrial hemangiosarcoma; median survival 4-6 months even with treatment C Idiopathic pericardial effusion; excellent prognosis with pericardiectomy D Ectopic thyroid carcinoma; good prognosis with surgical excision E Pericardial mesothelioma; median survival 12-18 months with treatment

Question 46 Canine

A 3-year-old intact female German Shepherd Dog arrests during emergency surgery for gastric dilatation-volvulus (GDV). The ECG shows pulseless electrical activity (PEA). Serum potassium measured 2 minutes prior to arrest was 7.8 mEq/L. In addition to standard CPR interventions, which treatment is most critical to address the likely underlying cause?

A Sodium bicarbonate 1 mEq/kg IV B Calcium gluconate 50-100 mg/kg IV C Lidocaine 2 mg/kg IV bolus D Magnesium sulfate 25 mg/kg IV E Dextrose 50% 1 mL/kg IV

Question 47 Canine

A 6-month-old male German Shepherd Dog is presented for failure to grow appropriately compared to littermates. The owners report he retains a soft, woolly coat without guard hairs. Physical examination reveals proportionate dwarfism, bilateral symmetric alopecia sparing the head and distal extremities, and bilateral cryptorchidism. Serum chemistry reveals mildly elevated creatinine. Which hormone deficiency pattern is most consistent with this presentation?

A Isolated growth hormone deficiency with preserved TSH, ACTH, and gonadotropins B Combined deficiency of GH, TSH, prolactin, and gonadotropins with preserved ACTH secretion C Panhypopituitarism with deficiency of all anterior pituitary hormones including ACTH D Isolated TSH deficiency causing secondary hypothyroidism E Primary thyroid gland failure with elevated TSH and low T4

Question 48 Canine

An 8-year-old neutered male West Highland White Terrier presents with weakness and muscle fasciculations. Serum total calcium is 5.0 mg/dL with ionized calcium of 0.62 mmol/L. The phosphorus is 7.8 mg/dL. An ECG is performed. Which ECG abnormality would be most consistent with this patient's electrolyte status?

A Shortened QT interval B QT prolongation with ST elevation C Tall peaked T waves D Widened QRS complex E Absent P waves

Question 49 Canine

A 5-year-old female spayed mixed breed dog (32 kg) presents with a 2-week history of left hindlimb lameness that worsens after exercise. Physical examination reveals left stifle effusion, a positive cranial drawer sign when the stifle is flexed, but no instability when the stifle is extended. The tibial compression test is positive. There is no audible click. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A Complete rupture of both the craniomedial and caudolateral bands of the CCL B Craniomedial band partial CCL rupture C Isolated caudal cruciate ligament rupture D Meniscal tear without ligamentous injury E Stifle osteochondritis dissecans

Question 50 Canine

A 6-year-old spayed female English Springer Spaniel with well-controlled idiopathic epilepsy on phenobarbital for 2 years presents for routine recheck. The owner reports the dog is doing well with no seizure activity. Physical examination is unremarkable. CBC reveals PCV 28% (reference: 37-55%), MCV 72 fL (reference: 60-77 fL), reticulocyte count 312,000/uL, and normal WBC and platelet counts. Blood smear shows marked polychromasia, occasional Howell-Jolly bodies, and eccentrocytes. Serum chemistry shows mildly elevated ALT. What is the most likely cause of this dog's anemia?

A Phenobarbital-induced bone marrow suppression B Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia triggered by phenobarbital C Chronic blood loss from occult gastrointestinal hemorrhage D Oxidative hemolysis related to phenobarbital hepatotoxicity E Phosphofructokinase deficiency causing hemolytic episodes

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